IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 Practice Test 7

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Practice Test 7

Q.1) Consider the following statements:

  1. The point within the earth where an earthquake rupture starts is called hypocenter.
  2. Love waves are transverse in nature.
  3. Rayleigh wave is the slowest of all the seismic waves.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

  1. Acid rocks have high content of silica.
  2. Basic rocks are poor in silica, hence the parent material of such rocks cools slowly and thus, flows and spreads far away.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.3) With reference to Geomagnetism, consider the following statements:

  1. The Earth has more than two magnetic poles.
  2. Agonic line is an imaginary line connecting the points of same angle of declination.
  3. Geomagnetic dipole does not coincide with the Earth’s axis of rotation rather it is parallel to it.
  4. Presently, South Magnetic pole is located in Northern Canada.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 3 and 4 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 4 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.4) With reference to Karst landforms, which of the following are depositional features:

  1. Travertine
  2. Tufa
  3. Polje
  4. Stalagmite
  5. Stalactite
  6. Uvala

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
  2. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
  4. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

Q.5) The gently sloping accumulation of coarse alluvium deposits by a braided stream is known as:

  1. Alluvial fan
  2. Sand bar
  3. Bajada
  4. Pediment

Q.6) Consider the following discontinuities:

  1. Repetti discontinuity
  2. Conrad discontinuity
  3. Lehmann discontinuity
  4. Gutenberg discontinuity
  5. Mohorovicic’s discontinuity

What is the correct order from top to bottom?

  1. 1-2-3-4-5
  2. 5-2-1-3-4
  3. 1-4-2-3-5
  4. 2-5-1-4-3

Q.7) Which of the following characteristics cannot be associated with metamorphic rocks?

  1. Recrystallization due to melting and solidifying again
  2. Foliation
  3. Fossiliferous
  4. Banding

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 4 only

Q.8) Consider the following statements regarding the geomorphic process:

  1. The source of energy for the exogenetic process is atmosphere whereas, that for the endogenic process is the Earth herself.
  2. Exogenetic forces cause aggradation whereas, the endogenic forces, degradation.
  3. Diastrophic forces are classified under exogenetic forces.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.9) Consider the following statements about Paleomagnetism or fossil magnetism:

  1. Statement 1: It acts as a decisive evidence for continental drift and global plate
  2. Statement 2: It does not provide an understanding to the problems of thermal history of our planet.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Statement 1 is correct only
  2. Statement 2 is correct only
  3. Both the statements are correct
  4. Both the statements are incorrect

Q.10) With reference to meanders, consider the following statements:

  1. Riffles play an important role in the formation of meanders, but pools don’t.
  2. Meanders are formed only in the mature stage of a river.
  3. Slip-off slope is formed on the concave side of a bend, whereas river cliff is formed in the convex side of a bend.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.11) The term ‘isostasy’ is related to:

  1. geodetic survey
  2. gravity anomalies
  3. energy equilibrium
  4. weathering and erosion

Q.12) Consider the following statements regarding “Circum-Pacific belt”:

  1. It is characterized by convergent plate boundary only.
  2. Fold Mountains are found along both the margins of Pacific Ocean.
  3. It is prone to Tsunami.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) “Continental Drift Theory” of Alfred Wegner was criticized and subsequently rejected. Which of the following were its criticism?

  1. His theory starts from the carboniferous period and does not describe the conditions before this period.
  2. His belief that both the tidal and pole fleeing forces are inadequate in moving continents.
  3. His theory of Continents and Oceans of the same age.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Absence of surface drainage is a predominant characteristic of which of the following landform?

  1. Fluvial Landforms
  2. Glaciation landforms
  3. Limestone and chalk landforms
  4. Volcanic landforms

Q.15) With reference to “fault”, consider the following statements:

  1. A fault is a fracture in the earth’s crust due to tension force.
  2. In case of normal fault, new surface is generated in the form of scarp.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.16) What are the characteristics associated with fjord?

  1. A fjord is a long, deep, narrow body of water.
  2. Fjords commonly are deeper in their middle and upper reaches than at the seaward end.
  3. Fjords are commonly V-shaped valleys.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.17) Consider the following statements about weathering:

  1. Physical weathering happens especially in places where there is little soil and few plants grow, such as in mountain regions and hot deserts.
  2. Exfoliation occurs as cracks develop parallel to the land surface, a consequence of the reduction in pressure during uplift and erosion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. Statement 1 is correct only
  2. Statement 2 is correct only
  3. Both the statements are correct
  4. Both the statements are incorrect

Q.18) Consider the following statements about Aeolian processes:

  1. Deflation is the intermittent, leaping movement of particles of sand or gravel, as from the force of wind.
  2. Saltation is the lifting and removal of fine, dry particles of silt, soil, and sand by the blowing wind.
  3. Abrasion is the mechanical scraping of a rock surface, by friction between rocks and moving particles, during their transport by wind.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None of these

Q.19) Which among the below given pairs is/are correct?

  1. Dykes : : horizontal intrusion of magma
  2. Sills : : vertical intrusion of magma
  3. Phacolith : : lens shaped mass of igneous rocks

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. None

Q.20) Which of the following condition(s) will favour the phenomena of river capture?

  1. Steep channel gradient of the captor river.
  2. Higher sediment load in the captor river.
  3. Low volume of water discharge in the captor river.
  4. Soft rocks towards the head-ward direction.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4

Q.21) The Mission Karmayogi is the national programme for which of the following?

  1. Doubling Farmer Income
  2. Universal Vaccination against COVID19
  3. Civil Services Capacity Building
  4. Labour Welfare Reforms

Q.22) Which of the following categories is/are eligible for finance under Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?

  1. Loans to farmers both for installation of solar power plants
  2. Loans for setting up compressed biogas plants
  3. Bank finance to start-ups up to Rs. 500 crore

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.23) Consider the following statements regarding Nairobi Convention:

  1. It is part of UNEP’s Regional Seas Programme.
  2. India is a party to the Convention.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) The Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA) has been constituted under which of the following Acts?

  1. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
  2. The Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
  3. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986
  4. None of the above as CGWA is not a statutory body

Q.25) Consider the following pairs:

IndexReleased by
1.     Human Capital IndexWorld Bank
2.     Global Innovation IndexWorld Intellectual Property Organization
3.     Economic Freedom IndexEconomist Intelligence Unit

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) SAATHI (System for Assessment, Awareness and Training for Hospitality Industry) initiative is launched by which of the following?

  1. Ministry of Commerce and Industry
  2. Ministry of Culture
  3. Ministry of Tourism
  4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Q.27) Which of the following statements regarding the National Commission for Indian System of Medicine (NCISM) is/are correct?

  1. It is a statutory body constituted under National Medical Commission Act, 2019.
  2. It frames policies for the regulation of medical professionals and institutions for Indian System of Medicine.
  3. It ensures the coordination among the Board of Homoeopathy, Medical Assessment and Rating Board and Ethics and Medical Registration Board.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) Which of the following State government is developing ‘Sanskrit Grams’ to teach people to use Sanskrit regularly?

  1. Uttarakhand
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.29) Which of the following is/are types of Assisted Reproductive Technologies (ARTs)?

  1. Intrauterine Insemination
  2. Gamete IntraFallopian Transfer
  3. In Vitro Fertilization

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) The Factories Act, 1948, Mines Act, 1952 and Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 are consolidated under which of the following Labour codes?

  1. Code on Wages
  2. Industrial Relations Code
  3. Social Security Code
  4. Occupational Safety, Health and Working Conditions Code

Q.31) There is a huge escalator in Bengaluru International Airport with 500 steps moving with a speed of 20steps/min. Arun walks at a speed of 25steps/min. How long it will approximately take him to go up the escalator if he is also walking?

  1. 11mins
  2. 15mins
  3. 19mins
  4. 25mins

Q.32) In a 100 m race, A beats B by 10 m and C by 20 m. In a race of 180 m, B will beat C by

  1. 20 m
  2. 30 m
  3. 40 m
  4. 60 m

Q.33) In a 200 metres race A beats B by 35 m or 7 seconds. What is the A’s time over the course?

  1. 40 second
  2. 45 second
  3. 33 second
  4. 30 second

Q.34) A bag contains 50 paisa, 25 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 5:9:4, amounting to Rs 206. Find the number of coins of 50 paisa.

  1. 200
  2. 160
  3. 150
  4. 300

Q.35) Shankar covers a distance of 30 km by autorikshaw in 35 min. After deboarding the rickshaw, he took rest for 20 min and covers another 10 km by a taxi in 20 min. Find his average speed for the whole journey

  1. 24 km/hr
  2. 32 km/hr
  3. 18 km/hr
  4. 22 km/hr

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