IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 Practice Test 4

MYUPSC has announced a new batch of UPSC Prelims Online Mock Test Series 2021. The Batch is intended to help IAS aspirants who start preparation now for UPSC IAS Prelims 2021.

The new exam date for IAS Prelims is October 102021


Click here to join – UPSC Prelims Test Series 2021 (New Batch)


Practice Test 4

Q.1) The book ‘Stripurushtulna’ is written by:

  1. Pandit Ramabai
  2. Tarabai Shinde
  3. Savitribai Phule
  4. Rokeya Sakhawat Hossain

Q.2) Consider the following statements about “western intellectual during British India”:

  1. Charles Wilkins published the first English translation of the Bhagavad Gita in 1785
  2. William Jones established Archaeological Survey of India in 1861.
  3. Alexander Cunningham translated 50 books in a monumental volume titled ‘Sacred Book of East’.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding women education in British India:

  1. First women’s university of India – SNDT University, was opened by Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar.
  2. Wood’s Dispatch did not talk about Women’s education.
  3. First school exclusively for women was established by a British MP Drinkwater Bethune in 1849.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. Theosophical Society was originally established in Adyar, in Madras by Madam Blavatsky and Colonel Henry Olcott.
  2. Henry Thomas Colebrooke and Nathaniel Halhed were co-founders of the Asiatic Society of Bengal, and started a journal called Asiatic Researches.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.5) With reference to “All India Conference of Indian Christians”, consider the following statements:

  1. This organization opposed view of Indian National Congress and favoured for British Rule.
  2. AICIC was in favour of two nation theory and Nation based on religion.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.6) Consider following statements regarding social reforms related to Women during British India –

  1. Veerasalingam Pantulu formed an association for widow remarriage in Madras Presidency.
  2. Arya Samaj led by Dayanand Saraswati did not support widow remarriage.
  3. Petition to Hindu Remarriage Act was countered by Radhakant Deb and Dharma Sabha.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 2 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.7) Consider the following statements about Caste reform movements during British India:

  1. The Satnami movement in Central India was founded by Haridas Thakur who worked among the leatherworkers and organised a movement to improve their social status.
  2. Shri Narayana Guru said – No Caste, No Religion, No God for Mankind.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.8) Consider the following statements about Temple entry movement:

  1. Vaikom Satyagraha was led by Mannathu Padmanabhan.
  2. Self-Respect Movement was founded in 1925 by S. Ramanathan.
  3. Through Mahad Satyagraha, Ambedkar wanted to assert rights to enter Temple by lower caste.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. None of these

Q.9) Select the correct statements from the following:

  1. Brahmo Samaj formed in 1830, did not believe in Upanishads.
  2. The main aim of Veda Samaj, which was established in 1864 at Bombay, was to oppose social reform movement.

Choose from the below given options:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 not 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements about religious reform —

  1. Sayyid Ahmed Khan focused on modern education and established Anglo-oriental college in Aligarh.
  2. Khalsa College was established by leaders of Singh Sabha Movement.
  3. Rahnumai Mazdayasnan Sabha was reform movement of Judaism.

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3
  4. 1 only

Q.11) From the below, identify the incorrect statement about Sanyasi Rebellion:

  1. It took place around Murshidabad and Baikunthupur forests of Jalpaiguri.
  2. Among the Hindus Sannyasis the akharaa of Dashanami Sampradaya were major participants.
  3. Neel Darpan of Bankim Chandra Chatterjee reminds us about this rebellion.
  4. The raids on companies factories were organised under leadership of ‘Kena Sarkar’ and ‘Dirji Narayan’.

Q.12) Consider the following statements about “Ramosi Uprising”:

  1. It was led by Vasudeo Balwant Phadke.
  2. It was a non-violent protest against British businessmen and British Government.
  3. The protestors got control of the Pune city for a few days in 1879.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Which of the following is cause of Revolt of Sawantwadi?

  1. Rise in land tax by British
  2. Prohibition of local custom by British
  3. Eviction of natives from their place
  4. Eviction of rulers of Sawantwadi

Q.14) Consider the following statements about Frontier uprising of Tribes:

  1. To suppress Ahom revolt, East India Company took brutal approach of repression.
  2. Initial cause of Khasi uprising was to defend Khasi Kingdom from attack of British.

Which of the above statements is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.15) With reference to “Wahabi Movement in India”, consider the following statements:

  1. This movement was to reform Islam from Western influence.
  2. A Zehad was declared against the Sikh kingdom of Punjab.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Q.16) Consider following statements regarding Khonds Uprising –

  1. Main reason of uprising was the attempt of government to suppress human sacrifice.
  2. Movement ended by disappearance of Chakra Bishoi, the main leader of Khonds Uprising.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) Consider the following statements about legislations for Social reform during British India:

  1. Mastermind behind Widow Marriage Act, 1956 was Raja Ram Mohun Roy.
  2. Sharda Act defined male child as below 18 year of age and Female child as below 14 year.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) Consider the following statements about 1857-59 revolt:

  1. General Service Enlistment Act passed by Lord Canning, was one of the cause of sepoy revolt.
  2. Zamindars supported the revolt by providing funds.
  3. Sepoy wanted an independent democratic country after the revolt.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.19) The term ‘corrupt Udasi mahants’ is often associated with which of the following?

  1. Moplah rebellion
  2. Parsis reform movement
  3. Akali movement
  4. Ahmadiya movement

Q.20) Which of the following were the outcomes of socio-religious reform movements?

  1. Child marriage was forbidden by many sections of society.
  2. The press and literature improved and mass awareness arose.
  3. Complete prohibition of practices like polygamy, caste exploitation and gender inequality.

Choose the correct answer using the codes given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. All of the above


Q.21) ‘Mitakshara’ is associated with

  1. Yajnawalkya
  2. Poetics
  3. Grammar
  4. Drama

Q.22) Which of the following country launched Innovation Challenge Fund in India which aims to support scientists to tackle the most acute global challenges like Covid-19?

  1. Japan
  2. USA
  3. United Kingdom (UK)
  4. Netherlands

Q.23) Consider the following pairs:

FestivalCelebrated in
1.     Nuakhai JuharOdisha
2.     PulikkaliTamil Nadu
3.     ThumbimahotsavamKerala

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) The National GIS (Geographic Information System)-enabled Land Bank system is launched by which of the following?

  1. Ministry of Rural Development
  2. Ministry of Home Affairs
  3. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. Ministry of Commerce and Industry

Q.25) ‘Indian Society of Oriental Art’ was founded by

  1. Rabindranath Tagore
  2. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  3. Swami Vivekananda
  4. Abindranath Tagore

Q.26) Nation-wide plantation drive Harit Bharat Sankalp was recently undertaken by which of the following?

  1. Indian Railways
  2. National Highways Authority of India (NHAI)
  3. Wildlife Institute of India (WII)
  4. Indian Institute of Forest Management

Q.27) India’s first International Women’s Trade Centre will be setup in which of the following State/UT?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Kerala
  3. Goa
  4. Delhi

Q.28) With reference to TRIFOOD Scheme, consider the following statements:

  1. Under this scheme Minor Forest Produce tertiary processing units will be set up.
  2. It is implemented by TRIFED, Ministry of Tribal Affairs in association with Ministry of Food Processing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.29) Nationally Determined Contributions- Transport Initiative for Asia (NDC- TIA) project that aims to promote a comprehensive approach to decarbonize transport engages which of the following countries?

  1. India
  2. China
  3. Russia
  4. Japan
  5. Vietnam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 3 and 4 only
  2. 1, 2 and 5 only
  3. 2, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 3 and 5 only

Q.30) Recently the longest river ropeway in India was constructed on which of the following rivers?

  1. Indus
  2. Narmada
  3. Brahmaputra
  4. Sutlej

Q.31) Consider the following quantities.

Quantity A: The number of multiples of 9 between 200 and X+200

Quantity B: The number of multiples of 5 between 100 and X+100

Where X is a positive integer

Then

  1. Quantity A is greater.
  2. Quantity B is greater.
  3. Quantities A and B are equal
  4. It is impossible to determine which quantity is greater.

Q.32) In a store there are 345 L mustard oil, 120 L olive oil and 225 L coconut oil. What will be the capacity of the largest container to measure the above three types of oil?

  1. 10 L
  2. 12 L
  3. 15 L
  4. 18 L

Q.33) How many 3-digit numbers can be formed from the digits 2, 3, 5, 6, 7 and 9, which are divisible by 5 and none of the digits is repeated?

  1. 15
  2. 18
  3. 20
  4. 25

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

Most human beings are awake during the day and sleep all night. Owls live the opposite way. Owls are nocturnal. This means that they sleep all day and stay awake at night. Because owls are nocturnal, this means they must eat at night. But finding food in the dark is difficult. To help them, they have special eyes and ears.

Owls have very large eyes. These eyes absorb more light than normal. Since there is little light during the night, it is helpful to be able to absorb more of it. This helps owls find food in the dark.

Owls also have very good hearing. Even when owls are in the trees, they can hear small animals moving in the grass below. This helps owls catch their prey even when it is very dark. Like owls, mice are also nocturnal animals. Mice have an excellent sense of smell. This helps them find food in the dark.

Being nocturnal helps mice to hide from the many different animals that want to eat them. Most of the birds, snakes, and lizards that like to eat mice sleep at night—except, of course, owls!

Q.34) Based on the information in paragraph 2, it can be understood that an animal with small eyes:

  1. must be diurnal
  2. has trouble seeing in the dark
  3. can see very well at night
  4. is likely to be eaten by an owl

Q.35) According to the passage, owls can find food in the dark using their sense of

  1. Sight
  2. Sound
  3. Smell

Choose the correct code

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

for solution – Join our test series

Leave a Comment

Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *