IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 Practice Test 2

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Practice Test 2


Q.1) Which of the following contains the provisions related to co-operative societies?

  1. Fundamental Rights
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Directive Principles of State Policy

Choose correct option:

  1. 3 only
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Which of the following are mentioned under separate Articles in Part III of the Constitution of India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?

  1. Abolition of untouchability
  2. Abolition of titles
  3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for promotion of any particular religion
  4. Protection of interests of minorities

Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.3) Which of the statements given below is/are true with reference to Article 29 of Indian Constitution?

  1. Under Article 29, all minorities have the right to establish and administer educational institutions of their choice.
  2. Article 29 grants protection to both linguistic and religious minorities.

Choose correct option:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. Right to conserve the language includes the right to agitate for the protection of the language.
  2. Political speeches or promises made for the conservation of the language of a section of the citizens does not amount to corrupt practice under the Representation of the People Act, 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) Consider the below statements with regard to Directive Principles of State Policy and identify the incorrect one:

  1. They embody the concept of both ‘welfare state’ and ‘police state’, which existed during the colonial era.
  2. They resemble the ‘Instrument of Instructions’ enumerated in the Government of India Act of 1935.
  3. They are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
  4. They enable the opposition to exercise influence and control over the operations of the government.

Q.6) Which of the following Articles of Indian Constitution allows the Parliament to modify the fundamental rights of the armed forces personnel?

  1. Article 13
  2. Article 31
  3. Article 33
  4. Article 20

Q.7) Which of the following can be challenged in the courts as violating a Fundamental Right and hence, can be declared as void?

  1. Permanent laws enacted by both the Parliament or the state legislature.
  2. Temporary laws like ordinances issued by the president or the state governors.
  3. Non-legislative sources of law, that is, custom or usage having the force of law.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 2
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.8) Which among the following is rightly described as the Magna Carta of India?

  1. Part III
  2. Part IV
  3. Part IV A
  4. Preamble

Q.9) Which of the following Directive Principles were added to the original list by 42nd Amendment Act of 1976?

  1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
  2. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life
  3. To promote participation of workers in the management of Industries

Choose the correct code

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.10) Which one of the following schedules of the Constitution of India deals with languages recognized by the Constitution?

  1. Second Schedule
  2. Ninth Schedule
  3. Tenth Schedule
  4. Eighth Schedule

Q.11) Consider the following statements:

  1. Protection under Article 30 is confined only to minorities and does not extend to any section of citizens.
  2. The right under Article 30 also includes the right of a minority to impart education to its children in its own language.

Which of the statements give above is/are true?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) The category ‘Right to Freedom’ in Fundamental Rights of our Constitution consists of:

  1. Freedom to manage religious affairs
  2. Right to form associations/union
  3. Protection in respect of conviction for offences

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.13) Consider the following statements with regard to Habeas Corpus:

  1. The Habeas Corpus writ means order of the court directing the authority to produce the detained person in the court.
  2. The Habeas Corpus writ is a bulwark of individual liberty against arbitrary detention.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) According to L M Singhvi, an eminent jurist and diplomat, which among the following are the life giving provisions of the Constitution, that constitute the stuff of the Constitution and its philosophy of social justice?

  1. Directive Principles of State Policy
  2. Fundamental Duties
  3. Fundamental Rights
  4. Preamble

Q.15) In which of the following points is the Fundamental Rights are distinct from the Directive Principles?

  1. Fundamental Rights are societarian and socialistic, as they promote the welfare of the community
  2. Fundamental Rights do not require any legislation for their implementation.
  3. Fundamental Rights aim at establishing political democracy in the country.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.16) Which of the following are Directives contained in other Parts of the Constitution but are not included in Part IV of our Constitution?

  1. Claims of SCs and STs to Services
  2. Instruction in mother tongue
  3. Development of the Hindi Language

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 2 and 3
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Consider the below statements about Directive Principles of State Policy:

  1. They denote the ideals that the State should keep in mind while formulating policies and enacting laws.
  2. They are the constitutional instructions or recommendations to the State in legislative, executive and judiciary matters.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.18) What are the remedies to a person whose right to speech and expression (Article 19) is curtailed by the members of his community?

  1. He can move to the Supreme Court under Article 32.
  2. He can move to the High Court under Article 226.
  3. He only has ordinary legal remedy through lower courts.

Select the correct answer using codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2, and 3

Q.19) Which of the following statements are exceptions to rule of equality before law?

  1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the President or the Governor in any court during his term of office.
  2. The foreign ambassadors and diplomats enjoy immunity from civil proceedings but not from criminal proceedings.

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.20) Citizens’ right to live in safe buildings and environment is a part of which of the following Fundamental Rights Articles?

  1. Article 21
  2. Article 14
  3. Article 19
  4. Article 16

Q.21) Who among the following heads the Cabinet Committee on Security?

  1. National Security Advisor
  2. Home Minister
  3. Defence Minister
  4. Prime Minister

Q.22) Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana is associated with –

  1. providing housing loan to poor people at cheaper interest rates
  2. skill development initiative scheme of the Government of India
  3. promoting financial inclusion in the country
  4. providing financial help to the marginalized communities

Q.23) In the line of ‘One Nation – One Scheme’ theme, the Government of India had launched Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojna (PMFBY). Which of the following are the objectives of this scheme?

  1. To provide insurance coverage and financial support to the farmers in the event of failure of any of the notified crop as a result of natural calamities, pests & diseases.
  2. To stabilise the income of farmers to ensure their continuance in farming.
  3. To ensure flow of credit to the agriculture sector.

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding Open Credit Enablement Network (OCEN):

  1. It is a credit protocol infrastructure.
  2. It would democratise lending and enable small borrowers to avail funds easily.
  3. It will act as a common language for lenders and marketplaces to utilise and create innovative, financial credit products at scale.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) Consider the following pairs:

Channel or StraitSeparates
1.     Sombrero ChannelGreat Nicobar and Little Nicobar islands
2.     Ten Degree ChannelAndaman and Nicobar islands
3.     Duncan PassageGreat Andaman and Little Andaman islands

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) Consider the following statements about Red Sanders:

  1. Red Sanders is an endemic tree of South India.
  2. They are found in Tropical Moist Deciduous forest.
  3. IUCN has put it under the category of Endangered (EN) species in the Red List.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.27) Which of the following protected area is often referred as ‘The Amazon of East’?

  1. Khangchendzonga National Park
  2. Manas Tiger Reserve
  3. Dehing Patkai Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Namdapha National Park

Q.28) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Permanent Court of Arbitration (PCA)?

  1. It is an intergovernmental organization.
  2. It was established by the international treaty called ‘The Rome Statute’.
  3. India is not a member of PCA.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.29) Consider the following statements with respect to ‘PM SVANidhi Scheme’.

  1. It is launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
  2. It aims at facilitating collateral free working capital loans to street vendors.
  3. Only public scheduled commercial banks can provide loans under this scheme.

Select the correct statements

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Q.30) The producer support estimate (PSE), an indicator of the annual monetary value of gross transfers from consumers and taxpayers to agricultural producers, are updated and published annually by –

  1. Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development
  2. Food and Agriculture Organization
  3. NITI Aayog
  4. Department of Economic Affairs

Q.31) The difference between two positive numbers is 160 and the ratio between them is 5:3. Find the product of the two numbers.

  1. 96000
  2. 144000
  3. 48000
  4. 72000

Q.32) A two digit number is such that the product of the digits is 8. When 18 is added to the number, then the digits are reversed. The number is

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 42
  4. 64

Directions for the following 3 (three) items:

Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based in the passage only.

No conflict since the 1940s has been bloodier, yet few have been more completely ignored. Estimates of the death toll in Congo between 1998 and 2003 range from roughly 1m to more than 5m—no one counted the corpses. Taking the midpoint, the cost in lives was higher than that in Syria, Iraq, Vietnam or Korea. Yet scarcely any outsider has a clue what the fighting was about or who was killing whom. Which is a tragedy, because the great war at the heart of Africa might be about to start again.

To understand the original war, consider this outrageously oversimplified analogy. Imagine a giant house whose timbers are rotten. That was the Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko, the kleptocratic tyrant who ruled from 1965 to 1997. Next, imagine a cannonball that brings the house crashing down. That cannonball was fired from Rwanda, Congo’s tiny, turbulent neighbour. Now imagine that every local gang of armed criminals comes rushing in to steal the family jewels, and the looting turns violent. Finally, imagine that you are a young, unarmed woman who lives alone in the shattered house. It is not a pleasant thought, is it?

Mobutu and his underlings looted the Congolese state until it could barely stand. When a shock struck, it collapsed. The shock was the Rwandan genocide of 1994. The perpetrators of that abomination, defeated at home, fled into Congo. Rwanda invaded Congo to eliminate them. Meeting almost no resistance, since no one wanted to die for Mobutu, the highly disciplined Rwandans overthrew him and replaced him with their local ally, Laurent Kabila. Then Kabila switched sides and armed the genocidaires, so Rwanda tried to overthrow him, too. Angola and Zimbabwe saved him. The war degenerated into a bloody tussle for plunder. Eight foreign countries became embroiled, along with dozens of local militias. Congo’s mineral wealth fuelled the mayhem, as men with guns grabbed diamond, gold and coltan mines. Warlords stoked ethnic divisions, urging young men to take up arms to defend their tribe—and rob the one next door—because the state could not protect anyone. Rape spread like a forest fire.

Q.33) In the passage ‘’giant house whose timbers are rotten’’ refers to

  1. Congo between 1998 and 2003 where death toll raised from 1m to more than 5 m.
  2. Congolese state under Mobutu Sese Seko.
  3. Congolese state under Laurent Kabila.
  4. None of the above.

Q.34) According to the passage the cost in lives was higher in which of the following country?

  1. Syria
  2. Iraq
  3. Vietnam
  4. Congo

Q.35) According to the author, why did Rwanda invade Congo?

  1. To take revenge against the perpetrators of Rwandan genocide.
  2. To replace Laurent Kabila as the new head of Congo.
  3. To loot Congo’s mineral wealth.
  4. To impose their sovereignty over Congo.

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