IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 Practice Test 13

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Practice Test 13

Q.1) Consider the following statements with regard to Vice-President of India:

  1. Electoral College of Vice-President consists of elected and nominated members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
  2. Voting for the Vice-President’s office is done through open ballot.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Which of the following statements given below is/are correct regarding Constitutional Amendment Bill?

  1. The constitutional amendment bill must be passed in each House by Absolute Majority.
  2. An amendment bill, like all other bills, goes to the President for his assent, but in this case, the President has no powers to send it back for reconsideration.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) Constitution lays down which of the following bills to be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President?

  1. A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested
  2. A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax
  3. Both (a) and (b)
  4. None of the above

Q.4) Constitution of India provides for special provision for some states under Part XXI. Which among the following is/are intention behind them?

  1. to meet the aspirations of the people of backward regions of the states
  2. to protect the cultural and economic interests of the tribal people of the states
  3. to deal with the disturbed law and order condition in some parts of the states
  4. to protect the interests of linguistic minorities

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.5) Recently, some states are racing to gain special status which confers preferential treatment in the form of central assistance and tax breaks.  Which among the following are the conditions to categorize states for special status?

  1. hilly and difficult terrain
  2. low population density or sizable share of tribal population
  3. strategic location along borders with neighboring countries
  4. economic and infrastructural backwardness
  5. non-viable nature of state finances

Select the correct code given below:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 5
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.6) Which of the provisions of the Constitution can be amended only by a special majority of the Parliament and also with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority?

  1. Supreme Court and high courts
  2. Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure
  3. Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
  4. Union territories

Select the correct code given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Q.7) Which of the following statements is/are correct with regard to 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

  1. It gave primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights.
  2. It curtailed the judicial review power of the High Courts.
  3. It made President bound to the advice of the cabinet.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. All of the above

Q.8) Consider the below statements about Executive:

  1. Executive enjoys the right to get the Legislature dissolved.
  2. Ministers are members of both the legislature and the executive.
  3. Cabinet headed by PM is the real executive.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.9) The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of?

  1. Members of Parliament, state legislatures and legislative councils
  2. Elected and nominated members of Parliament and state legislatures
  3. Elected members of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
  4. Elected and nominated members of Lok Sabha and members of Rajya Sabha and state Legislative Assemblies

Q.10) The 42nd Amendment Act has added four new Directive Principles to the original list.

Identify the correct ones –

  1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children
  2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor
  3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries
  4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wild life

Codes:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.11) Consider the following statements with respect to qualifications for the elections of President

  1. Governor of any state can contest for President Elections.
  2. President can re-contest for the same office for any number of terms.

Choose the correct statement/s

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.12) Vice-President of India does not get an opportunity to act as President of India under which of the below stated circumstance

  1. When Presidents Office is vacant due to his resignation or death.
  2. When sitting President is unable to discharge his functions/duties due to absence or illness.
  3. When there is any delay in conducting the election of new President.
  4. When president office is vacant due to his removal.

Q.13) Consider the following statements with respect to election disputes of Vice-President

  1. All disputes in connection with election of Vice-President are inquired into and decided by Supreme Court after consultation with President of India.
  2. The acts carried out by Vice-President till the date of declaration are not validated, if his election to the post of Vice-President is declared as void.

Choose the correct statement/s

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) Who administers the oath of office and secrecy to Prime Minister?

  1. Chief Justice of India
  2. President
  3. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  4. Attorney General of India

Q.15) Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise President?

  1. Article 74
  2. Article 77
  3. Article 76
  4. Article 78

Q.16) Which of the following statements are correct regarding Amendment procedure under Article 368?

  1. Amendment bill can be initiated in each house of Parliament and state Legislative Assemblies.
  2. It can be introduced by a minister and not by a private member.
  3. If a bill is not passed by Rajya Sabha then a Joint meeting is called.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 3 only
  4. None of the above

Q.17) Which of the following qualifications are required to contest for Presidential Elections in India?

  1. A person should be a citizen of India by Birth
  2. The person should have completed 35 years of age
  3. The person should be qualified for election as a member of Lok Sabha
  4. He should not hold any office of profit

Select the code from following:

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.18) Which of the following Veto Power is not enjoyed by the President of India?

  1. Absolute Veto
  2. Qualified Veto
  3. Suspensive Veto
  4. Pocket Veto

Q.19) Which of the following changes to the constitution are outside the scope of Article 368?

  1. Establishment of new state
  2. Representation of states in Parliament
  3. Changes in elections to Parliament
  4. Changes in scheduled areas under Fifth Schedule

Select the correct answer using code below

  1. 1, 3 and 4
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.20) Which of the following constitutional amendments made elementary education a fundamental right?

  1. 84th
  2. 91st
  3. 93rd
  4. 86th

Q.21) The Xoo infection cause huge yield losses to the cultivation of which of the following?

  1. Barley
  2. Rice
  3. Maize
  4. Cotton

Q.22) With reference to Data Governance Quality Index (DGQI) survey, consider the following statements:

  1. It is conducted by Development Monitoring and Evaluation Office (DMEO) under NITI Aayog.
  2. It ranks Indian States for their preparedness to build a robust data protection regime.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.23) In which one of the following State Sajjangarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located?

  1. Odisha
  2. West Bengal
  3. Rajasthan
  4. Madhya Pradesh

Q.24) Consider the following pairs:

TunnelState/UT
1.     ZozilaJammu and Kashmir
2.     AtalHimachal Pradesh
3.     NechiphuArunachal Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.25) The report titled ‘Stacked Odds’ that highlights the scenario around the globe on modern slavery was released by

  1. United Nations (UN)
  2. Human Rights Watch
  3. World Economic Forum (WEF)
  4. Amnesty international

Q.26) Which of the following two Central Asian Countries share border with Caspian Sea?

  1. Kazakhstan and Tajikistan
  2. Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan
  3. Kazakhstan and Turkmenistan
  4. Tajikistan and Kyrgyz Republic

Q.27) Consider the following statements:

  1. India grows all four species of cultivated cotton.
  2. India is the largest organic cotton producer.
  3. India’s premium cotton would be known as Deccan Cotton in the world trade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.28) The SMART flight which has been successfully tested recently is related to which of the following?

  1. First Solar powered flight of India
  2. Multiple Independently targetable Reentry Vehicle (MIRV)
  3. The Crew Module Atmospheric Re-entry Experiment under Gaganyaan Mission
  4. Anti-Submarine Warfare

Q.29) The Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) is a quality system to ensure the safety of various industrial chemicals usage. Consider the following statements about GLP.

  1. GLP system has been evolved by Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW).
  2. National GLP Compliance Monitoring Authority (NGCMA) established by Department of Chemicals and Pharmaceuticals is the National body which grants GLP certification to test facilities (TFs) conducting safety studies.

Which of the statements given above is/are INCORRECT?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.30) The KAPILA campaign sometimes seen in the news aims at creating awareness in the field of which of the following?

  1. Cyber threats
  2. Indentured Labour
  3. Covid19 vaccination
  4. Intellectual Property

Q.31) A & B can make paintings in 6 days; B & C can make those paintings in 10 days. If A, B & C together can finish the work in 4 days, then A & C together will do it in


Q.32) A student has to score 35% marks to get through in an exam, if he gets 40 marks and fails by 30 marks, then the maximum marks set for the examination is

  1. 150
  2. 200
  3. 300
  4. 350

Q.33) A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days, B and C together start the work and forced to leave after 2 days. What is the time taken by A alone to complete the remaining work?

  1. 15 days
  2. 18 days
  3. 20 days
  4. 25 days

Q.34) Manju can complete a job in 5 days. Manju is twice as fast as Ajay while Ajay is thrice as fast as Nandu. If all of them work together, in how many days would the job get completed?

  1. 3 days
  2. 5 days
  3. 9 days
  4. 12 days

Q.35) Amar does 80% of a work in 20 days. He then calls in Baskar and they together finish the remaining work in 3 days. How long Baskar alone would take to do the whole work?


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