UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021 General Studies Test 12 in English

UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021 General Studies Test 12 in English: UPHESC Assistant Professor Recruitment 2021- Uttar Pradesh Higher Education Services Commission has started accepting online application form for 2003 vacancies for Assistant Professor Posts on its official website @uphesconline.org from 27th February 2021. The notice includes the dates and events for UPHESC recruitment.

UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021 Test Series for General studies

UP government is providing an opportunity for those candidates who are looking forward to teaching as their career. The online applications will be accepted by 26th March 2021.Bookmark this page and stay tuned with us for every latest update for UPHESC Assistant Professor Jobs 2021. UPHESC Assistant Professor Vacancy 2021 announced for 2003 Assistant Professor Post which includes 2002 posts of Assistant Acharya in 47 subjects and 01 post of Assistant Acharya Geoscience of Advertisement No. -46. The application form for UPHESC Assistant Professor 2021 began on 27 February 2021 and the last date to apply online is 12 April 2021.

U. P. HIGHER EDUCATION SERVICES COMMISSION, PRAYAGRAJ.

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General Studies (25 Practice Test) in English for UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021


General Studies (20 Practice Test) in Hindi for UPHESC Assistant Professor Exam 2021


1. Which of the following is not a correct statement with respect to Masala Bonds? 

[A] They allow Indian companies to raise overseas debts in Indian currency
[B] Interest Payment on Masala Bonds is in Indian Rupee
[C] Most popular market for Masala Bonds is New York currently
[D] All of the above are correct statements

Answer: C [Most popular market for Masala Bonds is New York currently]

Notes:
Masala bonds allow Indian companies to raise overseas debt in the Indian currency. The instrument shields the issuers from currency fluctuations mainly because interest payments and redemption is in rupees. At the same time, investors get interest rates that are higher than in their domestic markets. In third statement, the most popular market for Masala bonds currently is London. 

2. Which among the following would most likely follow if the Reserve Bank of India effects selling of the securities?

[A] The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks increase.
[B] The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks get diminished.
[C] The cash resources of the commercial banks remain unchanged
[D] none of the above

Answer: B [The cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks get diminished.]

Notes:
The Reserve Bank of India starts selling the Government Securities, on behalf of the Government. Either the commercial banks or retail investors buy the securities, resulting in decrease of cash resources at the disposal of the commercial banks.

3. Highest percentage of nitrogen is found in which among the following fertilizers among the given options?

[A] Calcium ammonium nitrate
[B] Ammonium nitrate
[C] Calcium nitrate
[D] Urea

Answer: D [Urea]

Notes:
The agricultural industry widely uses urea, white crystalline solid containing 46 percent nitrogen as an animal feed additive and fertilizer. Urea has the highest nitrogen content of all solid fertilizers at 46% N.

4. In which year Regional Rural Banks in our country started working?

[A] 1970
[B] 1972
[C] 1975
[D] 1977

Answer: C [1975]

Notes:
The Regional Rural Banks were established under the provisions RRB Act 1976. It aims to sufficient banking and credit facility for agriculture and other rural sectors. In accordance to the provisions of the act, Five Regional Rural Banks were set up on 2 October 1975.

5. What is the relationship between ‘Dear money’ & ‘Cheap money’ in Economics Terminology?

[A] Both of the terms are synonyms
[B] Both of them are antonyms
[C] They are unrelated in terms of their meaning
[D] Dear Money is white Money , cheap money is black money

Answer: B [Both of them are antonyms]

Notes:
Dear money is available at exceptionally high rate of interest and cheap money is available at very low rates

6. The Unclaimed deposits are those deposits which haven’t been operated for ______?

[A] 5 years or more
[B] 7 years or more
[C] 10 years or more
[D] 12 years or more

Answer: C [10 years or more]

Notes:
Unclaimed deposits are deposits where the proceeds/maturity has not been claimed for a period of 10 years or more. In other words, term deposits are deemed unclaimed if they are inactive/inoperative for more than 10 years.

7.Which among the following definition is nearest to the Gross Budgetary Support?

[A] value of gross revenue receipts by the government
[B] Value of total plan expenditure
[C] Fraction of total expenditure of the government on different Central sectors plans
[D] Fraction of total expenditure of the government on different Central sectors/ ministries/departments and the support to State/Union Territory Plan

Answer: D [Fraction of total expenditure of the government on different Central sectors/ ministries/departments and the support to State/Union Territory Plan]

8.Which year is known for BOP crisis in Indian Economy?

[A] 1990
[B] 1991
[C] 1995
[D] 1999

Answer: B [1991]

9.What will be the ultimate impact on the poor and landless farmers if all of a sudden, government decides to raise the Minimum Support Prices of rice & food grains inexorably or excessively?

[A] The poor farmers become rich
[B] The markets will crash
[C] The poor farmers become more poor
[D] This will encourage the exports of rice and food grains

Answer: C [The poor farmers become more poor]

10.If an exporter earns money and deposits that with RBI , what will be the ultimate impact on country’s money supply?

[A] Money supply will increase
[B] Money supply will decrease
[C] Money supply will remain unaltered
[D] Money supply will depend upon the current exchange rate

Answer: A [Money supply will increase]

11.In which year Physical coins and banknotes were introduced for the first time in Euro?

[A] 1995
[B] 2000
[C] 2002
[D] 2005

Answer: C [2002]

12.To avoid a Prompt Coercive Action from the Reserve Bank of India, a bank should not fall in which of the following conditions?

[A] It should have a very high NPA
[B] It should have a very low NPA
[C] It should have high capital adequacy Ratio
[D] It should have high profits

Answer: A [It should have a very high NPA]

Notes:
Please note the 3 trigger points that invite RBI to take Prompt Coercive Actions against Banks. They are low capital adequacy ratio, high non performing assets and low profit.

13.Which of the following imaginary circumstances, the Reserve bank of India will opt to sell Government securities in the open market?

[A] When the Foreign funds inflow is meek
[B] When there is enormous Foreign Funds Inflow in the Indian Economy
[C] When banks have low liquidity and need liquidity
[D] When Government of India asks the RBI to sell securities

Answer: B [When there is enormous Foreign Funds Inflow in the Indian Economy]

14.Revenue-neutral rate (RNR) is a component of which of the following taxes in India?

[A] Goods and Services Tax (GST)
[B] Income tax
[C] Customs
[D] Excise duty

Answer: A [Goods and Services Tax (GST)]

15.IFSC is an alphanumeric code designed to uniquely identify the bank branches in India. This is an 11-digit code with the first four characters representing the bank’s code, the next character reserved as control character (currently, 0 appears in the fifth position) and remaining six characters to identify the branch. RBI has advised all banks to print IFSC on cheque leaves issued to customers. What is the full form for IFSC Code?

[A] Indian Financial System Code
[B] Indian Financial Security Code
[C] International Financial System Code
[D] International Financial Security Code

Answer: A [Indian Financial System Code]

16.From which of the following country, India imports maximum amount of Tea?

[A] China
[B] Kenya
[C] Nepal
[D] Bangladesh

Answer: C [Nepal]

17.The Reserve Bank of India works as a lender of the last resort (LOLR). Which among the following is the correct statement in this context?

[A] RBI meets all the demands of the commercial banks in times of difficulties
[B] RBI meets all the reasonable demands of the commercial banks in times of difficulties
[C] RBI is the last lender to the Government at the centre and the states
[D] RBI grants loans to the banks and also the Governments in states

Answer: B [RBI meets all the reasonable demands of the commercial banks in times of difficulties]

Notes:
The banks can borrow from the RBI on the basis of eligible securities or any other arrangement and at the time of need or crisis, they approach RBI for financial help. Thus RBI works as Lender of the Last Resort (LORL) for banks.

18.Which among the following is the core method of stabilizing the markets under the Market Stabilisation Scheme (MSS) ?

[A] Issuing Treasury Bills and/ or dated securities
[B] Purchasing Treasury Bills and/ or dated securities
[C] Conducting Open Market Operations
[D] All the above

Answer: B [Purchasing Treasury Bills and/ or dated securities]

19.Devaluation of currency can correct a Balance of Payments deficit because___

[A] It lowers price of exports in foreign currency and rises price of imports in home currency
[B] It raises price of exports in foreign currency and lowers price of imports in home currency
[C] It raises price of exports and imports in foreign currency
[D] It lowers price of exports and imports in home currency

Answer: A [It lowers price of exports in foreign currency and rises price of imports in home currency]

Notes:
Devaluation refers to fall in the fixed exchange rate between one currency and other. Devaluation is used to correct the balance of payment (BoP) deficit but only as a last resort as it has major repercussions on the domestic economy. Devaluation can correct a BoP deficit because it lowers the price of experts in terms foreign currencies and raise the price of imports on the home market

20.The OPEC Reference Basket (ORB) does not count the Oil produced in ___:

[A] Angola
[B] Venezuela
[C] Mexico
[D] Iran

Answer: C [ Mexico ]

21.Consider the following policies:

  1. Commercial banks reducing their base rate
  2. Reduction in Statutory liquidity ratio (SLR)
  3. Increase in Reverse Repo Rate

Which of the above will increase the liquidity in the Indian market?

[A] 1 & 2 Only
[B] 3 Only
[C] 2 & 3 Only
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Answer: A [ 1 & 2 Only ]

Notes:
Base rate is the minimum rate set by the Reserve Bank of India below which banks are not allowed to lend to its customers. Base rate reduction will encourage loan growth in the economy. The ratio of liquid assets to net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) is called statutory liquidity ratio (SLR). Banks have to maintain a stipulated proportion of their net demand and time liabilities in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold and unencumbered securities. Reduction in SLR increases the lending capacity of banks and thus increases the liquidity in market. Reverse repo rate is the rate at which Reserve Bank of India borrows money from commercial banks within the country. An increase in Reverse Repo Rate shows tight monetary policies and thus decreases the liquidity in market.

22.
Which among the following statement in context with the Indirect Taxes is correct?

[A] They decrease as the value of the manufactured goods go up

[B] They don’t become part of Consolidated Fund of India

[C] They don’t differentiate between rich and poor

[D] Most governments prefer to raise their revenues through indirect taxes

Answer: C [
They don’t differentiate between rich and poor
]

Notes:
Indirect tax is essentially a tax on expenditure. Levies such as customs, excise and service tax / GST are examples of indirect taxes. They are considered regressive as they do not distinguish between the rich and the poor. So, most governments prefer to raise their revenues through direct taxes.

23.
If a company declares a 100% dividend, the shareholder will get an amount equal to the ___

[A] Face Value of the Share

[B] Market Value of the Share

[C] Previous dividend announced

[D] Face Value or Market Value, whichever is higher

Answer: A [
Face Value of the Share
]

Notes:
Dividend is the portion of profits that a company distributes among its shareholders in the form of cash. Usually it is expressed per share. In some cases it is expressed as a percentage of the share’s face value. So if your company declares a 100% dividend, you will get an amount equal to the face value of the share and not equal to its market price. When dividend is expressed in percentage terms, it is the face value that is referred to. The same holds good when it comes to dividends declared by mutual funds — it is the par value of units that is considered — which usually stands at Rs 10.

24.Medium term loans are provided for which of the following periods?

[A] 1 year to 3 years
[B] 15 months to 3 years
[C] 1 year to 2 years
[D] 15 months to 4 years

Answer: A [1 year to 3 years]

Notes:
In finance or financial operations of borrowing and investing, what is considered long-term is usually above 3 years, with medium-term usually between 1 and 3 years and short- term usually under 1 year.

25.Who presents the economic survey every year?

[A] Ministry of Economic affairs
[B] Department of Economic affairs
[C] Department of Finance
[D] Department of Revenue

Answer: B [Department of Economic affairs]

Notes:
The Economic Survey of India is the flagship annual document of the Finance Ministry. The Department of economic affairs, Ministry of Finance presents the Survey in the parliament every year, just before the Union Budget. It is prepared under the guidance of the Chief economic advisor of India. This document is presented to both Houses of Parliament during the Budget session.

26.Which of the following type of economy has purely private ownership?

[A] Socialist economy
[B] Capitalist economy
[C] Mixed economy
[D] Traditional economy

Answer: B [Capitalist economy]

Notes:
In a Capitalist economic system, the factors of production are owned by private companies and only private ownership exists.

27.Which sector contributes maximum to India’s GDP?

[A] Primary sector
[B] Secondary sector
[C] Tertiary sector
[D] Organised sector

Answer: C [Tertiary sector]

Notes:
The Tertiary sector has contributed 54.17 % of India’s Gross Value Added at the current price in 2018-19. 31.45 % of India’s employed population is working in the services sector.

28.Which of the following measures are not for the protection of workers in the unorganized sector?

[A] Government fixing minimum wages and minimmum working hours
[B] Government providing cheap loans to self employed people

[C] Government providing subsidised food and education
[D] None of the above

Answer: D [None of the above]

Notes:
All the given options are the measures taken by the government for the protection of workers in unorganized workers. Because of the conditions in the unorganized sector, there is a need for the government to give protection to these workers.

29.Which among the following is / are correct statements about NITI Aayog?

  1. One of its objectives is to foster development and promote cooperative federalism
  2. It is one of the most important quasi-judicial bodies

Select the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 & 2
[D] Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A [Only 1 ]

Notes:
NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission of India. Its chairman is Prime Minister Narendra Modi. It is an executive body under the government of India. Its function is to foster development and promote cooperative federalism.

30.Which of the following is explains role of Irrigation?
1. It protects the top soil
2. It helps in proper utilization of land
3. Well,canal and tank are types of irrigation
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] 1 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 1,2 and 3 only
[D] 2 and 3 only

Answer: C [1,2 and 3 only]

Notes:
Irrigation has 2 roles. one is the protective purpose and the other is making the land much more useful for second crop increasing its utility. Well, tank and canal are the types of irrigation.

31.Which item contributes maximum for Indian Imports?

[A] Oil
[B] Gems
[C] Automobiles
[D] Iron and steel

Answer: A [Oil]

Notes:
The top 10 imports of India are :
1.Mineral fuels including oil: US$153.5 billion (32% of total imports)
2.Gems, precious metals: $60 billion (12.5%)
3.Electrical machinery, equipment: $50.4 billion (10.5%)
4.Machinery including computers: $44.1 billion (9.2%)
5.Organic chemicals: $20.5 billion (4.3%)
6.Plastics, plastic articles: $14.6 billion (3.1%)
7.Iron, steel: $11.6 billion (2.4%)
8.Animal/vegetable fats, oils, waxes: $9.6 billion (2%)
9.Optical, technical, medical apparatus: $9.5 billion (2%)
10.Fertilizers: $7.3 billion (1.5%)

32.What was the target of the first five-year plan?

[A] Development of agriculture
[B] Development of textile industry
[C] Develpoemnt of manufacturing
[D] Removal of poverty

Answer: A [Development of agriculture]

Notes:
After Independence Indian economy was in a dismal state. The main focus of the first five-year plan was kept on the agricultural development as it is still the backbone of the Indian economy in terms of employment generation.

33.Which of the following is / are correct statement(s) regarding NITI Aayog?

  1. NITI Aayog vice-chairman has Cabinet minister’s rank and pay.
  2. Members of the NITI Aayog have the rank and status of ministers of state at the Centre.

Choose the correct option from the choices given below:

[A] Only 1
[B] Only 2
[C] Both 1 and 2
[D] None

Answer: C [Both 1 and 2]

Notes:
The NITI or the National Institution for Transforming India was created after abolishing the decades-old Planning Commission of India. It is a policy think tank of the Government of India, established with the aim to achieve sustainable development goals with cooperative federalism by fostering the involvement of State Governments of India in the economic policy-making process using a bottom-up approach. It has a Vice-Chairman and other members.

34.The Government fixes Minimum support price(MSP) for agricultural goods on the basis of recommendation of which of the following?

[A] Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
[B] NITI Aayog
[C] Finance Ministry
[D] Agriculture Ministry

Answer: A [Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices]

Notes:
The minimum support price is announced by the government of India on the recommendation of the Commission for agricultural costs and prices at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops.

35.How much urea has to be coated with neem by the domestic fertilizer firms?

[A] 50%
[B] 35%
[C] 75%
[D] 60%

Answer: C [75%]

Notes:
The government has made it mandatory for domestic fertilizer firms to “Neem coat” the urea at least 75 per cent of their urea production (It can even go up to 100%). Earlier, there was a cap of 35% on this.

36.Which among the following has GI tag?
1. Darjeeling black tea
2. Darjeeling green tea
3. Darjeeling white tea
Choose the correct option from the choices given below:

[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 3 only
[D] All the above

Answer: D [All the above]

Notes:
Darjeeling green and white teas have received a Geographical Indication (GI) tag for the domestic market. Darjeeling black tea is already registered as GI.

37.Why was Gopal Ratna awards given?

[A] For doing organic farming
[B] For maintaining the best herd of Indigenous Breed
[C] For using Bio gas
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [For maintaining the best herd of Indigenous Breed]

Notes:
Gopal Ratna awards was given for farmers maintaining the best herd of Indigenous Breed and practicing best management practices.

38.Who is known as the mother of Broiler poultry farming?

[A] William Harbor
[B] William jones
[C] Jonathan gener
[D] Wilmer steel

Answer: D [Wilmer steel]

Notes:
Wilmer Steel started Broiler Poultry Farming with around 500 Hens in the year 1923. Her little business was so profitable that, by 1926, Mrs. Steele was able to build a broiler house with a capacity of 10,000 birds.

39.Which ministry implements the pradhan Mantri Kisan sampada yojna?

[A] Ministry of commerce and industries
[B] Ministry of MSME
[C] Ministry of agriulture
[D] Minisitry of food processing Industries

Answer: D [Minisitry of food processing Industries]

Notes:
This umbrella scheme “Pradhan Mantri Kisan Sampada Yojana (PMKSY)” is implemented by Ministry of Food Processing Industries (MoFPI).

40.What is the minimum tree canopy density that an area should have in order to be considered as a forest?

[A] 30%
[B] 15%
[C] 45%
[D] 10%

Answer: D [10%]

Notes:
The forest cover of India includes all patches of land with a tree canopy density of more than 10% and more than 1 hectare in area, irrespective of land use, ownership and species of trees.

41.Which country is the largest rice importer in the world?

[A] China
[B] USA
[C] Iran
[D] Saudi Arabia

Answer: A [China]

Notes:
China is the world’s largest rice importer in the world. China, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Indonesia are top 4 rice importers.

42.How many types of spices are produced according to International Organization for Standardization (ISO)?

[A] 60
[B] 85
[C] 75
[D] None of the above

Answer: C [75]

Notes:
India is the world’s largest producer, consumer, and exporter of spices. India produces about 75 of the 109 varieties listed by the International Organization for Standardization (ISO).

43.When was the National forest inventory on produce created for the first time?

[A] 2017
[B] 2018
[C] 2019
[D] 2015

Answer: C [2019]

Notes:
India State of Forest Report (ISFR) released in 2019 has created the National forest inventory on produce for the first time. India State of Forest Report (ISFR) is released once every 2 years by the ministry of environment forest and climate change.

44.Which of the following types of irrigation is the easiest source of irrigation?

[A] Tank
[B] Canal
[C] Wells & Tubewells
[D] None of the above

Answer: C [Wells & Tubewells]

Notes:
Wells & Tubewells is the easiest source of irrigation. But it is expensive and also responsible for depleting underground water. Wells & Tubewells account for 63% of the total irrigated are of India.

45.In which year was Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) was established?

[A] 1991
[B] 1994
[C] 1995
[D] 1996

Answer: B [1994]

Notes:
The Government established Small Farmers’ Agri-Business Consortium (SFAC) as a Society in January 1994 to facilitate agri-business ventures by catalyzing private investment through Venture Capital Assistance (VCA) Scheme in close association with financial institutions.

46.How many active Farm clubs exist in India?

[A] 29876
[B] 24321
[C] 20987
[D] 19876

Answer: B [24321]

Notes:
Farmers’ Clubs (FCs) are promoted by National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD) are grass root level informal fora organized by the rural branches of banks, NGOs, Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs), etc. There are 24321 active Farmers Clubs existing in different States/UTs.

47.When was Intensive agricultural district program launched?

[A] 1955
[B] 1976
[C] 1960
[D] 1981

Answer: C [1960]

Notes:
The Intensive agricultural district program was launched in 1960. The main aim of the program was to provide loans for seeds and fertilizers to farmers. It also aimed to impart technical knowledge, and to suggest adaptable innovations to farmers.

48.Which among the following schemes are implemented under the National Mission for food processing?
1. Scheme for technology up-gradation of food processing industries
vehicles reefer and produces non-horticultural facilities for chain cold supporting 2. Scheme for
of abattoirs modernization 3. Scheme for
Crop Insurance 4. Scheme For
Choose the correct options from the codes given below:

[A] 1,2 and 3 only
[B] 1 and 2 only
[C] 2 and 3 only
[D] 1,2,3 and 4 only

Answer: A [1,2 and 3 only]

Notes:
The following schemes are implemented under the National Mission for food processing:
areas rural centres in primary processing centres/collection creating 1. Scheme for
of abattoirs modernization 2. Scheme for
Shops Of Meat Modernization 3. Scheme For
Resource Development Human 4. Scheme For
Activities Promotional 5. Scheme For
Food Street Of Of Quality Upgradation 6. Scheme For
7. Scheme for technology up-gradation / setting up /Modernization / expansion of food processing industries
vehicles reefer and produces non-horticultural facilities for chain cold supporting 8. Scheme for

49.When was Per drop more Crop program launched?

[A] 2001
[B] 2004
[C] 2006
[D] 2009

Answer: C [2006]

Notes:
Per Drop More Crop is a Micro Irrigation scheme.It was launched in 2006 aimed at improving  irrigation.

50.How many SEZ’s are currently operational in India?

[A] 230
[B] 545
[C] 300
[D] 132

Answer: A [230]

Notes:
There are about 230 are operational SEZs in the country. The SEZs which are approved are 417 in total.

51.Which of the following crops was focussed in the green revolution?

[A] Ground nuts
[B] Tur Dal
[C] Wheat
[D] None of the above

Answer: C [Wheat]

Notes:
The Green Revolution in India started with the introduction of high-yielding varieties (HYV) of seeds for Wheat and Rice. Yellow revolution is related to oil seeds

52.The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP Act) is not applicable to which sectors?
1. Government Company and undertaking owned by Government.
2. Company established by a Central or State Act.
3. Trade Unions
4. Companies which have been taken over by the central Government.
5. Companies owned by registered Cooperative Societies.
Choose the correct option from the choices given below:

[A] 1,2 and 3 only
[B] 1,2,3,4 and 5
[C] 1, 2 and 4 only
[D] None of the above

Answer: D [None of the above]

Notes:
The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act (MRTP Act) is not applicable to the following industries:
1. Government Company and undertaking owned by Government.
2. Company established by a Central or State Act.
3. Trade Unions
4. Companies which have been taken over by the central Government.
5. Companies owned by registered Cooperative Societies.
6. Any financial institution.

53.By which year government targets to install 100GW of solar power?

[A] 2020
[B] 2022
[C] 2024
[D] 2025

Answer: B [2022]

Notes:
The Government of India has set a target of installing 100 GW from solar. The target is to install 175 GW of renewable energy capacity by the year 2022, which includes, 60 GW from wind, 10 GW from bio-power and 5 GW from small hydro-power along with solar.

54.How many industrial corridors are planned in India?

[A] 3
[B] 5
[C] 6
[D] 7

Answer: B [5]

Notes:
There are 5 industrial corridors planned in India. Their construction is in Progress. They focus on inclusive development which will augment industrialization and urbanization in a planned manner.

55.Where is the International Centre for Automotive Technology  located

[A] Manesar
[B] Chennai
[C] Noida
[D] Visakhapatanam

Answer: A [Manesar]

Notes:
International Centre for Automotive Technology is located at Manesar in Gurugram district of Haryana . The Rs 1100 crore facility for vehicle homologation and also testing laboratories for noise, vibration and harshness and passive safety.

56.When was National Engineering Industries Ltd (NEIL) started?

[A] 1987
[B] 1946
[C] 1965
[D] 1934

Answer: B [1946]

Notes:
NBC Bearings is the product of National Engineering Industries Limited, a part of the C K Birla Group. It manufactures a wide range of bearings for the automotive, industrial, and railways sectors. It was started in 1946.

57.When was Maruti Udyog limited founded?

[A] 1981
[B] 1991
[C] 1986
[D] 1984

Answer: A [1981]

Notes:
The maruti Udyog limited is founded in 1981. It merged mered with Suzuki, which is a Japanese company in 1982.

58.What is FDI received by FMCG sector in the last 2 decades i.e from 2000 to 2020?

[A] US $16.28 billion
[B] US $13.28 billion
[C] US $12.28 billion
[D] US $10.28 billion

Answer: A [US $16.28 billion]

Notes:
The FMCG sector had FDI inflow of US$ 16.28 billion during April 2000-March 2020.100% FDI is allowed in single brand retail while 51% is allowed in multi brand retail.

59.What is the market size of processing plant equipment in India?

[A] $ 2,7 billion
[B] $12,7 billion
[C] $ 3,7 billion
[D] $ 7,7 billion

Answer: C [$ 3,7 billion]

Notes:
India capital goods industry is worth $ 43.2 billion. The processing plant equipment industry worth is $3.7 billion.

60.When was electrical equipment industry mission plan launched?

[A] 2010
[B] 2012
[C] 2013
[D] 2009

Answer: C [2013]

Notes:
The electrical equipment industry mission plan(2012-22) was launched in 2013. It is to encourage reliable, affordable and efficient EVs.

61.Who releases the Business-to-Consumer (B2C) E-commerce Index?

[A] World economic forum
[B] United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
[C] NITI Aayog
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [United Nations Conference on Trade and Development]

Notes:
United Nations Conference on Trade and Development releases Business-to-Consumer (B2C) E-commerce Index 2019. India ranked 73 in it in 2019.

62.What is the export value of Silver Jewellery exports of India in the previous year?

[A] US $ 0.51 billion
[B] US $ 0.82 billion
[C] US $ 2.71 billion
[D] US $ 0.31 billion

Answer: B [US $ 0.82 billion]

Notes:
The export value of Silver Jewellery exports in the previous year(2019) is US $ 0.823 billion. India is ranked 3 with a share of 10.7% in global exports.

63.What is India’s rank in Iron ore production?

[A] 2
[B] 5
[C] 4
[D] None of the above

Answer: C [4]

Notes:
The top 5 Iron ore producing countries are:
1. Australia
2. Brazil
3. China
4. India
5. Russia

64.Which company signed MOU with ONGC for offshore block exploration?

[A] Chevron corporation
[B] ExxonMobil
[C] Occidental Petroleum
[D] None of the above

Answer: B [ExxonMobil]

Notes:
ExxonMobil and ONGC signed a memorandum of understanding (MoU) for offshore blocks.

65.What is the FDI allowed in greenfield pharma under the automatic route?

[A] 100
[B] 74
[C] 49
[D] 51

Answer: A [100]

Notes:
Indian government allows 100% Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) under the automatic route for greenfield pharma.

66.Which institution announces Secondary Steel Sector Awards?

[A] CII
[B] World steel Association
[C] Minsitry of Steel
[D] NITI Aayog

Answer: C [Ministry of Steel]

Notes:
Union Ministry of Steel recently has announced and given Secondary Steel sector awards to 26 mini steel companies in recognition of their contribution. These awards were given in order to enhance the global competitiveness of companies involved in the secondary steel sector.

67.

What is the contribution of textile industry to the export earning for India?

[A] 15%
[B] 20%
[C] 25%
[D] 10%

Answer: A [15%]

Notes:

India is fifth largest exporter of textiles in the world. It contributes 15% to the India export earnings. India is world’s second largest Jute exporter.

68.What is the yield per hectare of Sugarcane in India?

[A] 54.6 tonnes/hectare
[B] 76.5 tonnes/hectare
[C] 74.6 tonnes/hectare
[D] 64.5 tonnes/hectare

Answer: D [64.5 tonnes/hectare]

Notes:
India has one of the lowest sugarcane productivity in the world. It produces about 64.5 tonnes/hectare.

69.What is the contribution of raw sugar to the International sugar trade?

[A] 40%
[B] 45%
[C] 60%
[D] 55%

Answer: C [60%]

Notes:
World sugar trade averages about 64 mln tonnes/year. Raw sugar accounts for around 60% of international trade volumes.

70.What is the average export value of paper from India in the past 10 years?

[A] 545.51 million USD
[B] 124.51 million USD
[C] 654.51 million USD
[D] 232.35 million USD

Answer: A [545.51 million USD]

Notes:
Exports of Paper & Paperboard in India averaged 545.51 USD Million from 2009 until 2019, reaching an all time high of 1430.14 USD Million in 2017.

71.Which among the following matches of places and their corresponding type of vegetation are correct?
1. Haryana and Punjab- Tropical thorny forest
2. Himachal Pradesh- Himalayan moist forest
3. Western Ghats- Tropical evergreen
4. Chhotanagpur Plateau- Tropical moist deciduous
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1, 2 & 3
[C] 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]

Notes:
Haryana and Punjab- Tropical thorny forest, Himachal Pradesh- Himalayan moist forest, Western Ghats- Tropical evergreen, Chhotanagpur Plateau- Tropical moist deciduous.

72.Which one of the following states in India has the largest area under forest cover?

[A] West Bengal
[B] Mizoram
[C] Madhya Pradesh
[D] Uttar Pradesh

Answer: C [Madhya Pradesh]

Notes:
Madhya Pradesh has the largest area (77,414 Sq. Km) under forest cover.

73.The diverse flora and fauna of the planet are under great threat mainly due to which of the following reason?

[A] Jhum cultivation
[B] Modern method of agriculture
[C] Insensitivity to our environment
[D] Commercial agriculture

Answer: C [Insensitivity to our environment]

Notes:
Insensitivity to our environment is the main reason for the diverse flora and fauna of the planet are under great threat.

74.What is the rank of India in terms of the total production of iron ore in the world?

[A] 2nd
[B] 4th
[C] 5th
[D] 7th

Answer: B [4th]

Notes:
India ranked 4th in terms of the total production of iron ore in the world. India ranked 7th in terms of the largest exporter in the world.

75.The thickest coal seam is found in which of the following places of India?

[A] Singarauli
[B] Jhingurda
[C] Kargail
[D] Kampte

Answer: B [Jhingurda]

Notes:
The thickest coal seam (132 meters) is found in Jhingurda coal mine. It is located in the state of Madhya Pradesh. It belongs to the Gondwana period.

76.Which among the following type of coal is used to make coke?

[A] Bituminous
[B] Anthracite
[C] Lignite
[D] Peat

Answer: A [Bituminous]

Notes:
Bituminous coal contains 60 to 80% of carbon. It is used in making coke. The coke is used in the Steel and Iron making factory.

77.Which among the following matches of coal mines and their corresponding states are correct?
1. Jharia coalfield- Jharkhand
2. Talcher coalfield- Odisha
3. Korba coalfield- Chattisgarh
4. Raniganj- West Bengal
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1, 2 & 4
[C] 2, 3 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: D [1, 2, 3 & 4]

Notes:
The correct order are Jharia coalfield- Jharkhand, Talcher coalfield- Odisha, Korba coalfield- Chattisgarh, Raniganj- West Bengal.

78.Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in which of the following places?

[A] Delhi
[B] Nagpur
[C] Mumbai
[D] Secunderabad

Answer: B [Nagpur]

Notes:
Koradi Thermal Power Station is located in Nagpur.

79.The reservoir of which of the following dam is known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar?

[A] Salal Dam
[B] Shivasamudram Dam
[C] Rihand Dam
[D] Ukai Dam

Answer: C [Rihand Dam]

Notes:
The reservoir of Rihand Dam is known as Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar. The dam is situated across the Rihand river (Tributary of Son river). It is the largest multipurpose project of the state of Uttar Pradesh.

80.What is the rank of India in terms of the total installed wind power capacity in the world?

[A] 1st
[B] 4th
[C] 8th
[D] 11th

Answer: B [4th]

Notes:
India ranked 4th in terms of the total installed wind power capacity in the world. The main concentration of wind power is found in the Southern, Western and Northern regions.

81.As per the Koppen’s classification of the Indian climate, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh are the part of which of the following climatic region?

[A] Semi-Arid Steppe
[B] Tundra type
[C] Cold Humid type
[D] Tropical Monsoon type

Answer: C [Cold Humid type]

Notes:
As per the Koppen’s classification of the Indian climate, Sikkim and Arunachal Pradesh are the part of Cold Humid type region. A short summer and cold humid winter are the characteristics of this region.

82.Which of the following statements is not correct about laterite soils in India?
1. These soils were first studied by Buchanan
2. These are mainly found in tropical areas with seasonal rainfall
3. These soils are poor in aluminium but rich in nitrogen
4. These are well developed on the summits of the Sahyadris and the Eastern Ghats
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 3 only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 2 & 3
[D] 3 & 4

Answer: A [3 only]

Notes:
Laterite soil is mainly rich in aluminium and iron. It is found in wet and hot tropical areas. Almost all types of laterite soils are red due to the presence of iron oxides. It is formed by the prolonged and rigorous weathering of the parent rock.

83.As per the national forest policy of 1952, what percent of the geographical area should be under forest cover?

[A] 33%
[B] 25%
[C] 18%
[D] 13%

Answer: A [33%]

Notes:
As per the national forest policy of 1952, 33% of the total geographical area should be under forest cover to maintain the ecological balance.

84.Economically the most important rocks in India are which of the following types?

[A] Cuddpha rocks
[B] Vindhyan rocks
[C] Dharwar rocks
[D] Gondwana rocks

Answer: C [Dharwar rocks]

Notes:
Economically the most important rocks in India are Dharwar Rocks. It is highly metamorphosed sedimentary rock.

85.Which among the following is/ are used as a fuel in thermal power plant?
1. Coal
2. Natural Gas
3. Petroleum
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 1 only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]

Notes:
Coal, Natural Gas and Petroleum is used to generate electric energy in Thermal power plant.

86.Which of the following is the largest dam in India?

[A] Bhakra Nangal Dam
[B] Hirakud Dam
[C] Jawahar Sagar Dam
[D] Dool Hasti Dam

Answer: A [Bhakra Nangal Dam]

Notes:
Bhakra Nangal Dam is the largest dam in India. It is located across river Sutlej in the state of Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.

87.Ukai dam is situated across which of the following river?

[A] Narmada
[B] Tapi
[C] Mahanadi
[D] Krishna

Answer: B [Tapi]

Notes:
Ukai dam is situated across the Tapi river. The main purpose of constructing this dam was to harness the Tapi river. It is located in the state of Gujarat.

88.Which among the following factors are responsible for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India?
1. The rapid rate of increase of population
2. Lower per capita income
3. The practice of dividing of land equally among the heirs
4. Use of traditional ploughing techniques
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:

[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: B [1 & 3]

Notes:
The rapid rate of increase of population and the practice of dividing of land equally among the heirs are the main reasons for the decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land in India.

89.Which of the following states is the leading coffee producing state of India?

[A] Assam
[B] Tamil Nadu
[C] Karnataka
[D] West Bengal

Answer: C [Karnataka]

Notes:
Karnataka is the leading coffee producing state (More than 50%) of India.

90.Which among the following statements are correct?
1. The leading consumer of the fertilizer is Punjab
2. In the areas of dry farming, the fertilizer consumption is very low
3. The largest number of cattle are found in India
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1 & 3
[C] 2 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Answer: D [1, 2 & 3]

Notes:
The leading consumer of the fertilizer is Punjab (175kg/ha). In the areas of dry farming, the fertilizer consumption is very low. Largest number of cattle are found in India.

91.Arrange the following states as per the descending order of their production of cotton textile
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Maharashtra
3. Gujarat
4. Uttar Pradesh
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 2, 1, 3, 4
[B] 2, 3, 1, 4
[C] 3, 2, 1, 4
[D] 3, 1, 2, 4

Answer: B [2, 3, 1, 4]

Notes:
The correct descending order- Maharashtra, Gujarat, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh.

92.The highest density of road is found in which of the following states of India?

[A] Kerala
[B] Maharashtra
[C] Punjab
[D] Karnataka

Answer: A [Kerala]

Notes:
The highest density of road is found in the state of Kerala. Kerala is followed by Tripura.

93.Which among the following ports have a natural harbour?
1. Kochi
2. Mumbai
3. New Tuticorin
4. Paradwip
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 1 & 2
[B] 1, 2 & 3
[C] 1, 2 & 4
[D] 1, 2, 3 & 4

Answer: C [1, 2 & 4]

Notes:
The ports of India with natural harbour are Kochi, Mumbai, Paradwip. New Tuticorin has an artificial deep-sea harbour.

94.Which of the following is the density of population in India according to Census 2011?

[A] 382
[B] 375
[C] 342
[D] 312

Answer: A [382]

Notes:
The density of the population in India according to Census 2011 is 382.

95.As per the Census 2011, which of the following States has the highest density of population?

[A] West Bengal
[B] Uttar Pradesh
[C] Mizoram
[D] Bihar

Answer: D [Bihar]

Notes:
As per the Census 2011, Bihar has the highest density of population (1106 per sq km).

96.The census in India is conducted by which among the following authorities?
1. Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner
2. President of India
3. Prime Minister of India
Choose the correct option from the codes given below :

[A] 1 only
[B] 1 & 2
[C] 1 & 3
[D] 1, 2 & 3

Answer: A [1 only]

Notes:
The census in India is conducted by the Office of the Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India. It is performed under the Ministry of Home Affairs. C. Chandramouli served this post during Census 2011.

97.Which among the following is the most educated and wealthy religious community of India?

[A] Muslim
[B] Sikh
[C] Jain
[D] Buddhist

Answer: C [Jain]

Notes:
Jains are the most educated and wealthy religious communities of India. Muslims are the least educated community.

98.While calculating the Child Sex ratio which of the following age group is taken into account?

[A] 1-5 months
[B] 1-6 years
[C] 0-5 months
[D] 0-6 years

Answer: D [0-6 years]

Notes:
The Child Sex Ratio is the number of females per thousand males in the age group of 0–6 years. As per the Census 2011, the Child Sex Ration in India is 919.

99.Lepcha is a popular language in which of the following states of India?

[A] Sikkim
[B] Mizoram
[C] Manipur
[D] None of the above

Answer: A [Sikkim]

Notes:
Lepcha is a popular language in the state of Sikkim. It is also spoken in some parts of the state of West Bengal.

100.As per the census 2011, which one of the following is the correct ascending sequence of States with regard to percentage of urban population?

[A] Goa-Mizoram-Maharashtra-Kerala
[B] Maharashtra-Kerala-Mizoram-Goa
[C] Mizoram-Goa-Maharashtra-Kerala
[D] Tamil Nadu-Mizoram-Goa-Maharashtra

Answer: B [Maharashtra-Kerala-Mizoram-Goa]

Notes:
Maharashtra (45.23), Kerala (47.72%), Mizoram(51.51%), Goa (62.17%).

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