Clear UPSC IAS Prelims 2021 through 10000 Expected MCQs: Practice Solved Test 11

Clear UPSC IAS Prelims 2021 through 10000 MCQs: Most Probable Prelims Questions – New PDF Compilations of Important MCQs Also Available for Download. These questions will be highly useful for aspirants preparing as it covers both static and current topics. Clear UPSC IAS Prelims 2021 through 10000 Expected MCQs: Practice Solved Test 11.

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Practice Solved Test 11

1. Consider the following statements:

1. According to Election Commission, there are 250 registered parties in India.

2. When a recognised political party splits, the Supreme Court takes the decision on assigning the party symbol.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. With reference to political parties and elections in India, consider the following statements:

1. According to Representation of the People Act, 1951, no person shall vote at any election if he is confined in a prison.

2. Registered political parties, can get recognition as `State Party’ or ‘National Party’ subject to the fulfillment of the conditions prescribed by the Commission in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 (RPA), as amended from time to time.

3. A recognized National or State party can have a maximum of 40 “Star campaigners”.

4. If a party wins 2% of seats in the Lok Sabha from at least four different States, it can be recognized as a national party.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

 (a) 1 and 4 Only

 (b) 1 and 3 Only

 (c) 2, 3 and 4 Only

 (d) All of the above

3. With reference to Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), consider the following statements:

1. The scheme is implemented by empanelled general insurance companies.

2. Selection of Implementing Agency (IA) is done by Ministry of Agriculture.

3. The scheme is compulsory for loanee farmers availing Crop Loan /KCC account for notified crops and voluntary for other others.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 and 2

 (b) 2 and 3

 (c) 1 and 3

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

4. Consider the following statements about the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (India):

1. Directorate General of Civil Aviation is an attached office of the Ministry of Civil Aviation.

2. DGCA is the regulatory body in the field of Civil Aviation primarily dealing with safety issues.

3. It co-ordinates all regulatory functions with International Civil Aviation Organisation.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 2 only

 (b) 1 and 3

 (c) 1 and 2

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

5. Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.

2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.

3. Treasury bills offer are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 and 2 only

 (b) 3 Only

 (c) 2 and 3 only

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

6. Which among the following does not have a border along the North Sea?

 (a) Norway

 (b) Denmark

 (c) Germany

 (d) Poland

7. In India, The term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of?

 (a) Digital security infrastructure

 (b) Food security infrastructure

 (c) Health care and education infrastructure

 (d) Telecommunication and transportation infrastructure

8. Recently ‘Parivar Pehchan Patra’ (PPP) scheme was in news, is related to which of the following?

 (a) Population control measures

 (b) Unique identity card scheme

 (c) Gender Empowerment Measure

 (d) None of the above

9. If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?

1. Not depending on the short term foreign borrowing.

2. Opening up to more foreign banks

3. Maintaining full capital account convertibility

Select the correct answer using the given code below-

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 1 and 2 only

 (c) 3 only

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

10. If you withdraw 1, 00,000 from your in cash from your Demand Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be

 (a) To reduce it by 1, 00,000

 (b) To increase it by 1, 00,000

 (c) To increase it by more than 1, 00,000

 (d) To leave it unchanged

11. It was commissioned in 1660 by the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb in the memory of his first and chief wife Dilras Banu Begum. The structure, known as the ‘Taj of the Deccan’ because of its striking resemblance to the Taj Mahal. It is considered to be a symbol of Aurangzeb’s ‘conjugal fidelity’. It is

 (a) Ibrahim Roza

 (b) Shahzadi Ka Maqbara

 (c) Bibi Ka Maqbara

 (d) Maqbara Yadgare Mohabbat Tajammuli Begum

12. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect regarding Judicial Review?

1. Indian Constitution confers the power of judicial review to Supreme Court only.

2. The purpose of the judicial review is to review constitutional amendments only.

3. Judicial review is a part of the basic structure of the constitution.

Select the correct answer using the code below:

 a) 1 and 2

 b) 2 and 3

 c) 3 only

 d) 1, 2 and 3

13. Consider the following pairs:

Towns/Cities sometimes mentioned         Country in news      

1.         Doha                                                    Bahrain

2.         Dubai                                               Saudi Arabia

3.         Manama                                              Kuwait

Which of the pairs given above is/are not correctly matched?

 (a) 2 only

 (b) 2 and 3

 (c) 1 and 3

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

14. Which of the following are the critical components of Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY) scheme?

1. Reduction in the aggregate technical and commercial (AT&C) losses.

2. Timely reduction of tariffs.

3. Elimination of the gap between average per unit of cost and revenue realised.

Select the correct answer code:

 a) 1 and 2

 b) 1 and 3

 c) 2 and 3

 d) 1, 2 and 3

15. Consider the following statements.

1. The right to carry on trade or business using the Internet is constitutionally protected.

2. In India, Information Technology Act, 2000 is the only law that deals with suspension of Internet services.

3. Section 144 CrPC gives power to a District Magistrate to block the internet access.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 and 2

 b) 1 and 3

 c) 2 and 3

 d) 1, 2 and 3

16. The prime objective of the ‘Sagarmala project’ is to:

 a) Aid the construction of world-class port facilities in Indian Ocean littoral nations

 b) Develop naval bases in Indian Ocean littoral nations

 c) Promote port-led direct and indirect development in India

 d) Thwart China’s rising geo-political ambitions in the Indo-Pacific

17. Which of the following pairs (Dams: State located) is/are correctly matched?

 (a) Irai Dam: Maharashtra

 (b) Tehri Dam: Himachal Pradesh

 (c) Khindsi dam: Gujarat

 (d) All of the above

18. ‘Trifood Parks’ project is being implemented by:

 (a) Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)

 (b) Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA)

 (c) Food Corporation of India (FCI)

 (d) None of the above

19. Consider the following statements about Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development Federation of India (TRIFED):

1. It was established in 1987.

2. It is under the administrative control of the Ministry of Tribal Affairs.

Which of the given above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

 (b) 2 only

 (c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

20. Consider the following statements regarding Van Dhan Scheme.

1. The Van Dhan Scheme is an initiative of the Ministry of Development of North Eastern Region and TRIFED.

2. It seeks to improve tribal incomes through value addition of tribal products.

3. The aggregation of tribal produce would be done by SHGs.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 a) 1 and 2

 (b) 2 and 3

 (c) 1 and 3

 (d) 1, 2 and 3

Q21. With reference to record-keeping in early British India, consider the following statements.

1. Dedicated record rooms were attached to administrative institutions such as village tahsildar’s office and the collectorate.

2. Specialised institutions like archives and museums were established to preserve important records.

3. Revenue surveys were conducted in the villages in the early nineteenth century.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q22. With reference to Masala bonds, consider the following statements.

1. Any corporate, body corporate and Indian bank is eligible to issue Rupee denominated bonds overseas.

2. According to RBI, the minimum maturity period for Masala Bonds raised up to Rupee equivalent of USD 50 million in a financial year should be 3 years.

3. RBI mandates that the money raised through such bonds cannot be used for real estate activities other than for development of integrated township or affordable housing projects.

4. Money can be raised through Masala bonds to invest in capital markets, but not for speculative purposes.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

D. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q23. Although this Scottish historian never set foot in India at any time in his life, he best known literary work is the “History of British India (1817)”, which many believe to be a celebration of colonial values and denunciation of orientalism?

A. James Mill

B. Lawrence James

C. David Arnold

D. Alexander Cunningham

Q24. Which of the following areas of regulation has been brought newly in the E-Waste (Management) Rules, 2016, that were not present in the E-waste (Management) rules, 2011?

1. Compact Fluorescent Lamp (CFL) and other mercury containing lamp

2. Exemption of Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) for the Micro Enterprise generated e-waste.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q25. Arrange the following regions based on the potential of landslide incidence in them, in decreasing order:

1. Himalayas

2. North-eastern Hills

3. Vindhyachal

4. Western Ghats and the Nilgiris

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1243

B. 1234

C. 2134

D. 2143

Q26. With reference to the Rajamannar Committee (1969), consider the following statements.

1. The Terms of Reference of the Committee had enjoined it ‘to suggest suitable amendments to the Constitution to secure to the States the utmost autonomy’.

2. The central theme in the recommendations of the Committee was to eliminate the concept of the legislative supremacy of the Centre and to confer maximum autonomy to the States.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q27. Consider the following capitals of North-eastern states of India.

1. Aizawl

2. Imphal

3. Kohima

4. Itanagar

What is the correct order of these capitals from south to North?

A. 1234

B. 2314

C. 3214

D. 1342

Q28. An Open Architecture based Wi-Fi Access Network Interface (WANI) has been proposed by the Telecom Regulatory Authority in India (TRAI). The vision of this initiative is such that

1. Any entity, including small entrepreneurs will be able to easily set up a paid public WiFi access point or hotspot.

2. Public Data Offices (PDOs), who would provide bandwidth to the entities interested in setting up WANI, will need telecom license and share revenue with the government.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q29. What is often referred by philosophers as “The Paradox of Positive Liberty”?

A. Licentiousness

B. Authoritarianism

C. Democracy

D. Perfect Competition

Q30. Consider the following statements.

1. Diclofenac was administered to livestock as painkillers/anti-inflammatory drugs.

2. The Central Government banned both Diclofenac and its replacement Meloxicam since they were harmful for vultures.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q31. Consider the following about photosynthesis.

1. Not only plants, but some bacteria also perform photosynthesis.

2. Glucose and oxygen are the end products of oxygenic photosynthesis.

3. Chlorophyll in plants absorbs its energy mostly from the green-yellow-orange wavelengths of light.

4. During an oxygenic photosynthesis, light energy transfers electrons from water (H2O) to carbon dioxide (CO2), to produce carbohydrates.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 3 and 4 only

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 3 only

Q32 Astrobatrachus kurichiyana, a frog, was discovered recently. What is important about this discovery?

1. It belongs to an ancient lineage of frogs.

2. It is one of the very few burrowing species that are found in the Western Ghats.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q33. Consider the following statements about the role of earthworms.

1. They are considered primary “ecosystem engineers”.

2. They are not found in temperate climatic zones.

3. They can significantly increase the water-holding capacity of soils.

4. As they consume organic matter and mineral particles, earthworms excrete wastes in the form of casts, which is a type of soil aggregate.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1, 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 2 only

Q34. Which of the following differentiate(s) Acclimatization with Adaptation?

1. Acclimatization occurs within a very short period of time, but adaptation takes a longer time but usually occurs within the organism’s lifetime.

2. Acclimatization can be a response to a change in photoperiod or pH around an organism, but these changes do not lead to any adaptation.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q35. The tool ‘AWaRe’ launched by the World Health Organization (WHO) concerns which of the following problems?

A. Malaria epidemics

B. Yellow Fever

C. Anti-biotic resistance

D. Tuberculosis

Q36. Consider the following statements. In eukaryotes

1. The cytoplasm contains all of the organelles.

2. Reproduction is always asexual.

3. DNA is usually circular without proteins.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q37. Consider the following statements.

1. United Nations Organization (UNO) and its officials enjoy immunity under the United Nations (Privileges and Immunities) Act, 1947.

2. The consent of the Government of India is not required to initiate a legal suit against UNO as it is not a foreign state.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q38 which of the following is/are anti-biotic isolated from fungi?

1. Ergo sterol

2. Penicillin

3. Psilocybin

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q39. With reference to Indian music tradition, the term Jatisvaram is

(a) A carnatic musical form with no sahitya or lyrics

(b) A prominent form of Hindustani music developed in northern India

(c)  A traditional form of folk music of Rajasthan

(d) The only musical form which is common to both Hindustani and Carnatic musical traditions

Q40. Given the distribution of all the species across the World

1. The percentage of occurrence of fungi and lichen species in India is higher than the percentage of occurrence of the species of flowering plants.

2. The percentage of occurrence of angiosperms in India is higher than the percentage of occurrence of the species of non-flowering plants.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q41. Which of the following was/were NOT a causative factor behind the “Indigo or Blue rebellion” in 1859?

1. The peasants were compelled to plant Indigo rather than the food Crops.

2. The peasants were provided loans called “dadon” for indigo planting which was at a very high interest rate.

3. Acquisition of farmland by the British for their industrial projects

4. Restrictions on international trade of indigo

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 and 4 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

Q42. Which of these countries has the unique distinction of being the only country producing all the five known commercial silks – namely, mulberry, tropical tasar, oak tasar, eri and muga?

A. Nepal

B. India

C. Sri Lanka

D. Bangladesh

Q43. Consider the following statements:

Assertion (A): Windows of the houses in coastal areas are made to face the sea to receive the cooler sea breeze in the night.

Reason (R): Land and water get heated at different rates which lead to wind movement due to pressure difference.

In the context of the above, which of these is correct?

A. A is correct, and R is an appropriate explanation of A.

B. A is correct, but R is not an appropriate explanation of A.

C. A is correct, but R is incorrect.

D. A is incorrect, but R is correct.

Q44. Which of the following can be used as naturally occurring indicators of acids and base?

1. Turmeric

2. China Rose petals

3. Litmus obtained from lichens

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1, 2 and 3

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 1 and 2 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q45. Match the following acids with what they are usually found in:

1. Formic Acid: Lemon

2. Oxalic Acid: Spinach

3. Ascorbic Acid: Ant’s Sting

4. Lactic Acid: Curd

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 2 and 4 only

D. 1 and 4 only

Q46. According to the terms of the ‘Subsidiary Alliance’, Indian rulers were

1. Not allowed to have their independent armed forces

2. Supposed to protect the British representatives in the princely states

3. Penalized for not adhering with the terms of the alliance, examples being the Nawab of Awadh and princely state of Hyderabad

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q47. Which of the following polar habitants are good swimmers and can swim for miles in the ocean?

1. Polar bears

2. Penguins

3. Walruses

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 only

B. 1, 2 and 3

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1 and 3 only

Q48. A wind flow pattern is setup across the earth. The factor/s influencing this pattern is/are,

1. Uneven heating of earth

2. Coriolis force

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q49. What is/are the difference between tornadoes and hurricanes/cyclones?

1. Tornados and cyclones do not co-exist.

2. While the latter is characterized by extremely strong horizontal winds swirling around the centre, in the former horizontal winds are absent and vertical wind dominate

3. The direction of rotation of a hurricane/cyclone is decided by the direction of earth’s rotation, which is not the case with tornadoes.

4. Tornadoes are much smaller in scale than hurricanes.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1, 3 and 4 only

B. 1 and 4 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 4 only

Q50 The regional coalition known as the ‘Quad’ does NOT include

A. China

B. Japan

C. India

D. United States

Q51. Consider the following statements regarding GDP:

1. It does not include externalities such as pollution.

2. It is both a qualitative and a quantitative concept.

3. Salaries earned by foreign employees in Mumbai are included in India’s GDP.

4. Salaries earned by Indian employees in London are not included in India’s GDP.

Which of the above statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Q52. With reference to the Capital Gains Tax, consider the following statements:

1. It is a direct tax derived from profit of the sale of a movable and non-movable capital asset.

2. It is applicable to only those assets which are available for the sale only.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q53. In the context of Net Domestic Product (NDP), which among the following statements is correct?

(a) NDP = GDP + Depreciation

(b) NDP = GDP – Depreciation

(c) Depreciation Rates are announced by RBI.

(d) NDP is higher than GDP

Q54. Which of the following ministries launched the Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Minor Forest Produce (MFP)?

(a) Ministry of Tribal Affairs

(b) Minister of Environment, Forest and Climate Change

(c) Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers’ Welfare

(d) None of the above

Q55. Consider the following statements regarding poverty estimation in India:

1. Tendulkar Committee was established to review the Rangarajan Committee report.

2. Rangarajan Committee counted expenditure only on food components.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q56. Which of the following services witnessed decelerating growth during 2018-19?

1. Real Estate

2. Tourism

3. Transport

4. Defence

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 4 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q57. An Escrow account is an:

(a) Account opened by a registered political party to manage its electoral expenses.

(b) Account of a government subsidiary in an offshore bank.

(c) Account in a bank which is held by the third party on behalf of two other parties that are in the process of completing a transaction.

(d) Account which is seized by the Financial Action Task Force (FATF).

Q58. With reference to National Manufacturing Policy 2011, consider the following statements:

1. The policy is based on the principle of industrial growth in partnership with the states.

2. National Investment and Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) are an important instrument of the policy.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q59. Which of the following statements is/ are correct about the Fiscal Responsibility Management Act (FRBMA), 2003?

1. States need to take prior permission from the central government for market borrowing.

2. It aimed to reduce Fiscal deficit and revenue deficit contingent liabilities and total liabilities.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q60. What is the Reverse Repo Rate?

(a) It is the rate of interest at which central bank borrows money from the commercial banks of the country.

(b) It is the rate of interest at which banks deposit their surplus funds with themselves for short periods.

(c) It is the rate of interest at which banks can borrow additional money.

(d) It is the rate of interest at which the RBI buys or rediscounts bills of exchange.

Q61. The factor(s) responsible for the increase in demand for goods in an economy is/are:

1. Rise in the prices of substitute goods.

2. Rise in the prices of complementary goods.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q62. With reference to National Highways in India, consider the following statements:

1. National Highways constitute only around 2% of the total road length in the country.

2. A part of the fuel cess is used for funding the implementation of National Highway Development Programme.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q63. Select the correct statement regarding the role of taxes in National Income Accounting:

 (a) Direct taxes don’t need to be adjusted if the National Income is accounted at factor cost.

(b) Indirect taxes need to be adjusted if the income is accounted at market cost.

(c) If the National Income is calculated at factor cost, then the corpus of the total indirect taxes needs to be added to it.

(d) Dividend Tax requires adjustment in National Income Accounting.

Q64. With reference to Soil Health Card, consider the following statements:

1. It is a printed report that contains the status of soil with respect to macro and micro nutrients.

2. The scheme covers only less fertile areas of India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q65. Consider the following statements regarding the Net National Product (NNP) at Market Price:

1. It includes the value of depreciation.

2. It measures output produced by the country’s citizens in the domestic territory and abroad.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q66. Which of the following is/are the part of First Generation Economic Reforms in India?

1. Promotion to Private Sector

2. Tax Reforms

3. Public Sector Reform

4. Legal Sector Reform

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q67. A Giffen good is a:

(a) Good on which people spend a small portion of their income.

(b) Good that people buy more as their incomes fall.

(c) Good that has a vertical demand curve parallel to the y-axis.

(d) Good which people buy more as its price increases.

Q68. Consider the following statements regarding trends in Service sector in India:

1. Foreign exchange earnings from tourism sector have increased in 2018-19.

2. The services sector growth declined due to deceleration in the growth of sub sectors such as trade, hotels etc.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q69. Regarding the role of a state economy, consider the following statements:

1. As a “regulator”, the state regulates only the production network but not the distribution network.

2. Under this system, state plays the roles of producer of both public and private goods.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q70. What are the components of Revenue Expenditure of Central Government?

1. Interest paid to the states

2. Grants given

3. Pension

4. Loan given to the states by the centre

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Q71. Which of the following transactions is/are not included in calculating the Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a nation?

1. Money received from selling of an old car

2. Social Security payments

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q72. Which of the following is/are correct about National Anti-Profiteering Authority (NAA)?

1. It has been constituted under Income Tax Act.

2. It ensures that the reduction in the rate of tax is passed to the recipients.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q73. Economic Development is dependent on which of the following factors?

(a) Fiscal Policy

(b) Monetary Policy

(c) Taxation

(d) All of the above

Q74. Consider the following statements regarding Service Sector in India:

1. The services sector accounts for more than 50 per cent of India’s Gross Value Added (GVA).

2. In total service export, transport sector has highest share.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q75. Which of the following could be categorized as Capital goods?

1. Steel sheets used in an automobile manufacturing plant.

2. Packaging machine in a wafer chips and wafers manufacturing factory.

3. Warehouse in a bottling plant.

4. Oil rig owned by the oil company.

5. The television set in an office cafeteria.

6. Battleship owned by defence forces.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 5 only

(b) 2 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 6 only

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

Q76. Consider the following statements.

1. Pradhan Mantri Bhartiya Jan Aushadhi Kendra (PMBJK) have been set up to provide generic drugs.

2. Bureau of Pharma PSUs of India (BPPI) is the implementing agency of PMBJP.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q77. The policy of “paramountcy” primarily aimed at

A. Making all Indian states accept the suzerainty of the British

B. Inhibiting alliances with the princely courts of India

C. Dismantling the economic might of all European companies trading in India

D. Creating a circle of power among the princely states of India

Q78. ‘SCORM’ is a set of

A. Inter-operable airline standards

B. E-learning technical standards

C. DNA information record

D. Telecom spectrum bandwidth

Q79. Consider the following statements with reference to the Buddhist and Jain metaphysical positions.

1. The Jainas believe that things or substance have attributes, whereas the Buddhists believe that things are essentially devoid of any permanent or independent attributes.

2. The Jainas believe that the natural and supernatural things of the universe can be traced back to seven fundamental elements, whereas the Mahayana Buddhists hold that the Universe can be described by sunyavada.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q80. With reference to the ijaradari system in British India, consider the following statements.

1. The ijaradari system was introduced by Munro.

2. The right to collect revenue from the land was given to the highest bidder.

3. The land was given as a permanent asset to the ijaradars.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 3 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 2 only

Q81. Which of the following plants/species survive on heterotrophic mode of nutrition?

A. Red algae

B. Cuscuta

C. Lithops

D. Green algae

Q82. Consider the following statements.

1. Excessive use of chemical fertilisers makes the soil acidic.

2. Plants do not grow well when the soil is either too acidic or too basic.

3. Acidic soil should be treated with more organic matter to reduce acidity.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 and 3 only

B. 1, 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1 and 2 only

Q83. Multilateral environmental agreements signed at which of the following places share the common objective of protecting human health and the environment from hazardous chemicals and wastes?

1. Basel

2. Rotterdam

3. Stockholm

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 only

B. 1 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q84. Which of the following leaders were associated with the founding of the Rehnumai Mazdayasan Sabha?

1. S.S. Bengalee

2. Naoroji Furdoonji

3. Dadabhai Naoroji

4. Pherozeshah Mehta

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q85. National Accreditation Board for Certification Bodies (NABCB) recently signed the Mutual Recognition Arrangement (MRA) of the Asia Pacific Accreditation Cooperation (APAC) for its accreditation programme based on international standard. What is the significance of this move?

1. Any person carrying the concerned skill certificate with NABCB logo will be recognized internationally.

2. Certification would support many professionals in India, especially those who do not have formal education or certificate programme.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None

Q86. With reference to Mughal India, Nankar and Malikana could be

A. Principal income of the Zamindar

B. Remuneration for the service of the Zamindar in some case

C. A form of services tax imposed by the Zamindar

D. Both (a) and (b)

Q87. The Central Government has declared which of the following minerals as minor minerals?

1. Chalk

2. Brick-earth

3. Marble

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q88. What is/are the advantage(s) of Intercropping as compared to the conventional method of sole cropping?

1. It helps maintain soil fertility as the nutrient uptake is made from different layers of soil.

2. It generally gives higher income per unit area than mono-cropping.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Q89. With reference to the Telecom Regulatory Authority in India (TRAI), consider the following statements.

1. TRAI is a quasi-judicial body since its adjudicated orders cannot be appealed to any tribunal in the telecom sector and lie straight to the higher courts.

2. One of the main objectives of TRAI is to provide a fair and transparent policy environment which promotes a level playing field and facilitates fair competition.

3. The Telecom Commercial Communication Customer Preference Regulations, 2010 (TCCCPR) was issued by TRAI.

4. National Customer Preference Register (NCPR) was scrapped by TRAI sometime back to bring a revised Do Not Disturb (DND) Register.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 4 only

B. 1, 2, 3 and 4

C. 2, 3 and 4 only

D. 2 and 3 only

Q90. With reference to CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora), consider the following:

1. CITES is legally binding on the Parties and replaces respective national laws.

2. CITES was adopted as a result of the Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD).

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 only

B. 2 only

C. Both 1 and 2

D. None of the above

Q91. Which of the following was/were prevalent during ‘Rig Vedic age’?

1. Owning land as a private property

2. Knowledge of agriculture

3. Awareness of metallurgical operations Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q92. How are mulches spread on the soil beneficial to the farm?

1. They provide organic matter which helps keep the soil loose.

2. They improve root growth and improve the filtration of water through the soil.

3. They provide a good base for the growth of microorganisms in the soil.

Which of the above is/are correct?

A. 1 and 3 only

B. 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q93. With reference to Babur’s conquest of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Control over Kabul and Qandahar gave a boost to India’s foreign trade.

2. Cultural development received impetus with the amalgamation of Persian and Indian themes.

3. Use of gun-powder in India for the first time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2 and 3 only

Q94. What is the difference between Llanos (Venezuela) and Veld (South Africa) types of vegetation?

A. Former is a dense forest land whereas the latter is a grassland.

B. Llanos is a tropical grassland whereas Veld is a temperate grassland.

C. Veld is taiga type vegetation, whereas Campos is tropical vegetation.

D. None of the above

Q95. Which of the following elements are associated with Manipuri classical dance?

1. Kalasam

2. Sankirtana

3. Ras

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Q96. Which of these minerals can be found in the peninsular plateaus of India?

1. Copper

2. Gold

3. Manganese

4. Mica

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2, 3 and 4 only

C. 1 and 3 only

D. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q97. Consider the following statements regarding Vajrayana:

1. It developed as a sub-sect of Buddhism in India around the 1st century B.C.

2. It marked the development of tantric ideas in Buddhist teachings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Q98. With reference to the Regional Cooperation Agreement on Combating Piracy and Armed Robbery against Ships in Asia (RECAAP), consider the following statements.

1. RECAAP is the first regional government-to-government agreement to promote and enhance cooperation against piracy and armed robbery against ships in Asia.

2. India is a member of RECAAP.

3. International Maritime Organization (IMO) is a partner organization of RECAAP.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 1 and 2 only

B. 2 and 3 only

C. 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

Q99. Trees growing in colder conditions are normally cone shaped, have sloping branches and needle shaped leaves. What is the advantage conferred on such trees with respect to the conditions prevailing in their habitat?

1. This design helps the rainwater and snow to slide off easily.

2. Needles have a thick, waxy coating that retains more water than a regular leaf.

3. Since needles don’t shed every fall season, they can capture sunlight for nearly the entire year.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 1, 2 and 3

D. 1 and 3 only

Q100.  World Population Prospects 2019 has been released by the Population Division of the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs. As per the report

1. The global population is projected to increase by another 2 billion people by 2050.

2. India leads the set of countries that will make up for more than half the projected growth of the global population by 2050.

3. Overall, the world’s population is getting younger by 2050.

Select the correct answer using the codes below.

A. 2 only

B. 1 and 2 only

C. 2 and 3 only

D. 1, 2 and 3

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